Thursday, December 9, 2010
Still here
Tuesday, November 9, 2010
Tough texts (at least for me)
Monday, November 1, 2010
Which comes first, love or obedience?
Tuesday, October 19, 2010
Christianity and Islam
Tuesday, October 5, 2010
What is the purpose of knowledge?
Friday, September 24, 2010
Three mature followers of God
Tuesday, September 21, 2010
Where is the ultimate human free will in this?
Sunday, September 19, 2010
What does it look like to trust and obey God?
And the word of the LORD came to me saying,
16"Son of man, behold, I am about to take from you the desire of your eyes with a blow; but you shall not mourn and you shall not weep, and your tears shall not come.
17"Groan silently; make no mourning for the dead Bind on your turban and put your shoes on your feet, and do not cover your mustache and do not eat the bread of men."
18So I spoke to the people in the morning, and in the evening my wife died. And in the morning I did as I was commanded.
Ezekiel's obedience reminds me of some lyrics in a popular contemporary Christian song titled "Blessed Be Your Name." Here are those lyrics:
You give and take away
You give and take away
My heart will choose to say
Lord, blessed be Your name
Monday, September 13, 2010
Do I (want to) believe this?
Thursday, September 2, 2010
Sharing the New Testament by Using the Old
Saturday, August 28, 2010
The Great Commission
Sunday, August 22, 2010
Assurance of Perseverance
Thursday, August 12, 2010
Encouragement or caution, or both?
Proverbs 22:6 (NASB) says, "Train up a child in the way he should go, Even when he is old he will not depart from it." What does this verse mean?
My NASB translation says that the literal translation of "in the way he should go" is "according to his way." This is perhaps why the Darby Translation (DBY) says, "Train up the child according to the tenor of his way . . . ", or why the Young's Literal Translation (YNG) says, "Give instruction to a youth about his way . . ." A second clue to the meaning of Proverbs 22:6 may be found in a few verses later in the same chapter: "Foolishness is bound up in the heart of a child; The rod of discipline will remove it far from him." (22:15, NASB)
Conclusions? Proverbs 22:6 may be saying more about the need for a parent to be thoroughly aware of his/her child’s personality and about the significant influence s/he can have over his/her child. The NLT's translation of 22:6 may be misleading: "Teach your children to choose the right path, and when they are older, they will remain upon it." Of course as a parent I am to continue instructing my son in the Way, the Truth, and the Life (Ephesians 6:4), but in the knowledge and encouragement that it is only the Lord who can draw my son to Himself (John 6:44). I pray to that end.
Thursday, July 29, 2010
My wife like a fruitful vine and my son like an olive plant
Tuesday, July 27, 2010
Responding to disobedience
Saturday, July 24, 2010
21st century slavery in your backyard
Wednesday, July 21, 2010
Eternal Security
Wednesday, July 14, 2010
"Good" parents and their "bad" children
Monday, July 12, 2010
Bewail the ban on the veil
Wednesday, July 7, 2010
Covenant vs. Dispensational Theology
Saturday, June 26, 2010
No right to same-sex marriage under the European Convention on Human Rights . . . yet
On 24 June 2010, a unanimous Chamber (7 judges) of the European Court of Human Rights held that Article 12 (right to marry) of the European Convention on Human Rights does not oblige Austria (and therefore the other 46 States Parties to the Convention) to grant same-sex couples access to marriage. Here is the judgment. The primary reason for the Chamber's holding is "[T]here is no European consensus regarding same-sex marriage. At present no more than six out of forty-seven Convention States allow same-sex marriage." (para. 58) Those six countries are Belgium, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, Spain and Sweden.
I don't think this judgment is legally surprising, and I would be surprised if a Grand Chamber (upon referral under Article 43) holds that Article 12 does require same-sex access to marriage. However, I will not be surprised if within my lifetime the Court departs from this Chamber's judgment because a European consensus has emerged to grant same-sex couples the right to marry. Only time will tell.
Perhaps the more legally interesting part of the judgment is the question of whether the lack of any means of legal recognition of same-sex couples (e.g., registered partnerships) violates Article 14 (prohibition of discrimination) taken together with Article 8 (right to respect for private and family life) of the Convention. The majority dodged the question (para. 103), while a Joint Dissenting Opinion of three judges answered it this way: "Any absence of a legal framework offering them, at least to a certain extent, the same rights or benefits attached to marriage . . . would need robust justification, especially taking into account the growing trend in Europe to offer some means of qualifying for such rights or benefits." (para. 9) These three judges found a violation of Article 14 in conjunction with Article 8 because Austria did not advance a justification, let alone a robust one, for the absence of legal recognition until 1 January 2010. (para. 8) It would be worth reading how a Grand Chamber upon referral decides this particular question. Again, only time will tell.
Tuesday, June 22, 2010
The battle continues for freedom of religion in Canada
Sunday, June 20, 2010
Compassionate curses?
Friday, June 18, 2010
Thursday, June 17, 2010
Happy (early) Father's Day, Pops
Wednesday, June 16, 2010
What are you reading these days?
Wednesday, June 9, 2010
The right not to reveal your (non) religion
Tuesday, June 8, 2010
2nd of 3 reasons of Sailhamer
Kulikovsky on "Genesis Unbound"
Monday, June 7, 2010
The case of the missing "and"
When I printed Permans'review it came out in 41 pages, so I'll be referring to these numbers as I go along.
First things first, re: pages 1-9 of the review, I am not sure as a Young Earth Creationist whether I have a problem with "beginning" in Gen. 1:1 meaning "an extended, yet indeterminate duration of time-not a specific moment." (p. 6) The reason I don't think I have a problem with this is that I understand "the beginning" to include the 6 days of creation in Gen. 1:2-31, not to precede them as a separate, distinct act of creation.
But Perman rightly notes that "The question that this raises is whether "the beginning" includes the seven days of the following verses (1:2-2:4) or whether "the beginning" refers to a period of time that elapsed before the days of creation recorded in Genesis 1:2-2:4. In other words, is Genesis 1:1 ("in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth") a title to the entire chapter which summarizes the content of the following verses, or is Genesis 1:1 a distinct act which sequentially comes before the events of the following verses?" (p. 10)
Perman writes, "Sailhamer successfully argues for the second alternative-that "the beginning" is not a title to the chapter but a distinct act of God that occurred in a period of time that elapsed before the six days enumerated in 1:2ff." Perman enumerates three reasons that Sailhamer gives for his conclusion. I will respond to one of these three reasons in this post and the other two reasons in subsequent posts.
Reason # 2 given by Sailhamer (as summarized by Perman): "Second, Genesis 1:1 cannot be a title for the rest of the chapter because the next verse begins with the conjunction "and." But if 1:1 were a title in Hebrew, "the section immediately following it would surely not begin with the conjunction 'and.'"(103). The fact that Sailhamer is considered an expert in biblical Hebrew makes one confident that he knows what he is talking about here."
My response to this reason is that I cannot find the "and" in Gen. 1:2. According to the Masoretic Text (as published online by http://www.blueletterbible.org/), I cannot see an "and" at the beginning of Gen. 1:2. This may be why the NASB begins verse 2 with "The earth was formless and void . . ." I also observe that a number of Bible translations do not include an "and" at the beginning of Gen. 1:2 (e.g., NKJV, NLT, NIV, ESV, RSV, HNV). But this raises the following question: Why do some Bible translations include the word "and" at the beginning of Gen. 1:2 if the Masoretic Text does not contain it (e.g., KJV, ASV, DBY, WEB)? Do readers have any thoughts on this?
Saturday, June 5, 2010
Threaten torture to save your child's life?
Creationism
Wrestling with Calvinism: Part 2
Who is “everyone” in Hebrews 2:9 (NASB)?
- What does the text say?
- What does the text mean?
Here’s my preliminary shot at these two questions with respect to the “everyone” in Hebrews 2:9.
What does the text say? This is an interesting question when you survey the various translations out there. Here’s a sample: “everyone” (NASB, NKJV, NIV, ESV, RSV, HNV); “every man” (KJV, ASV, WEB); “every thing” (DBY); and “everyone in all the world” (NLT). I note that the NASB, which apparently is based on the Alexandrian text type, and the NKJV, which I think is based on the Textus Receptus (like the KJV), both say “everyone.” So, my answer to the first question is “everyone.”
What does “everyone” mean? A preliminary point to make here is that to ask this question is not to be facetious or obstinate. Someone might say, “Only a radical Calvinist would ask that question for which there is an obvious answer; ‘everyone’ obviously means every member of the human race.” Someone might also say, “The rebuttable presumption is that ‘everyone’ means every member of the human race, unless it can be proven otherwise.” But I think that such an approach unfortunately bypasses the legitimate question of “Why does ‘everyone’ presumably mean that?”
So what does “everyone” mean? I see at least two possible answers. First, “everyone” means every member of the human race. Second, “everyone” means every member of a sub-group within the human race. Why is the first possibility a real possibility? Because of Luke 18:14 (look it up:). Why is the second possibility a real possibility? Because of Genesis 45:1.
I’ve just realized I have only a few minutes before my son wakes up and we embark on an adventure to the playground together. So, suffice my reflections to end with the following question that I would love to hear your thoughts on. What is the relationship, if any, between “everyone” in verse 9 and the following words in verses 9-18:
-“we” (v. 9)
-“many sons”; “their” (v. 10)
-“those who are sanctified”; “them brethren” (v. 11)
-“brethren”; “the congregation” (v. 12)
-“the children whom God has given me” (v. 13)
-“the children” (v. 14)
-“those”; “their lives” (v. 15)
-“descendant of Abraham” (v. 16)
-“brethren”; “the people” (v. 17)
-“those who are tempted” (v. 18)
What’s your answer? Thanks for your time and help.
Wrestling with Calvinism: Part 1
1 John 2:2 – “and not [the propitiation] for ours [sins] only, but also for those of the whole world.” What does it mean “for those of the whole world”?
The verse does not appear to say anything about the predestination of the elect. It says that Jesus is the “propitiation … for those of the whole world.” What is “propitiation”?
Easton’s Bible Dictionary says:
This Greek word (hilasterion) came to denote not only the mercy-seat or lid of the ark, but also propitation [sic] or reconciliation by blood. On the great day of atonement the high priest carried the blood of the sacrifice he offered for all the people within the veil and sprinkled with it the ‘mercy-seat,’ and so made propitiation.
In 1Jo 2:2; 4:10, Christ is called the ‘propitiation for our sins.’ Here a different Greek word is used (hilasmos). Christ is ‘the propitiation,’ because by his becoming our substitute and assuming our obligations he expiated our guilt, covered it, by the vicarious punishment which he endured.
The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia says:
It is especially to be noted that all provisions for this friendly relation as between God and offending man find their initiation and provision in God and are under His direction, but involve the active response of man.
Vine’s says:
The expiatory work of the Cross is therefore the means whereby the barrier which sin interposes between God and man is broken down. By the giving up of His sinless life sacrificially, Christ annuls the power of sin to separate between God and the believer.
Man has forfeited his life on account of sin and God has provided the one and only way whereby eternal life could be bestowed, namely, by the voluntary laying down of His life by His Son, under Divine retribution. Of this the former sacrifices appointed by God were foreshadowings.[Emphasis added]
Strong’s says (in G2435):
Christ, through His expiatory death, is the Personal means by whom God shows the mercy of His justifying grace to the sinner who believes. His ‘blood’ stands for the voluntary giving up of His life, by the shedding of His blood in expiatory sacrifice, under Divine judgment righteously due to us as sinners, faith being the sole condition on man’s part.[Emphasis added]
Strong’s also says (in G2434):
akin to hileos (‘merciful, propitious’), signifies ‘an expiation, a means whereby sin is covered and remitted.’ It is used in the NT of Christ Himself as ‘the propitiation,’ in 1Jo 2:2; 4:10, signifying that He Himself, through the expiatory sacrifice of His Death, is the Personal means by whom God shows mercy to the sinner who believes on Christ as the One thus provided.[Emphasis added]
However, it does not seem to me that 1 John 2:2 challenges the belief in the predestination of the elect. Its meaning may be that, in Christ, God has provided “the means” for any human in the world to be propitiated, that is, for the debt created by his/her sins to be satisfied in full, and therefore to become right with God. Given that the author of the Gospel of John is writing, 1 John 2:2 seems to be close in meaning to John 3:16. If this interpretation is correct, 1 John 2:2 does not help me in answering the following questions:
What is the ultimate reason for why some persons will not, in the end, actually be propitiated?
Does the Bible teach the predestination to heaven of the elect?
Does the Bible teach the predestination to hell of the non-elect (i.e., double election)?
1 John 2:2 may teach the universal saving will of God, but it does not appear to be a weapon against the belief in the concurrent or simultaneous will of God to only save the elect. Strong’s says:
What is indicated [in 1 John 2:2] is that provision is made for the whole world, so that no one is, by Divine predetermination, excluded from the scope of God’s mercy; the efficacy of the ‘propitiation,’ however, is made actual for those who believe. (Strong’s G2434)
Please share your comments on the above with me. I am aware that Romans 3:25 and Hebrews 2:17 are relevant here, but I don’t have time now to examine them in any detail.