1 John 2:2 – “and not [the propitiation] for ours [sins] only, but also for those of the whole world.” What does it mean “for those of the whole world”?
The verse does not appear to say anything about the predestination of the elect. It says that Jesus is the “propitiation … for those of the whole world.” What is “propitiation”?
Easton’s Bible Dictionary says:
This Greek word (hilasterion) came to denote not only the mercy-seat or lid of the ark, but also propitation [sic] or reconciliation by blood. On the great day of atonement the high priest carried the blood of the sacrifice he offered for all the people within the veil and sprinkled with it the ‘mercy-seat,’ and so made propitiation.
In 1Jo 2:2; 4:10, Christ is called the ‘propitiation for our sins.’ Here a different Greek word is used (hilasmos). Christ is ‘the propitiation,’ because by his becoming our substitute and assuming our obligations he expiated our guilt, covered it, by the vicarious punishment which he endured.
The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia says:
It is especially to be noted that all provisions for this friendly relation as between God and offending man find their initiation and provision in God and are under His direction, but involve the active response of man.
Vine’s says:
The expiatory work of the Cross is therefore the means whereby the barrier which sin interposes between God and man is broken down. By the giving up of His sinless life sacrificially, Christ annuls the power of sin to separate between God and the believer.
Man has forfeited his life on account of sin and God has provided the one and only way whereby eternal life could be bestowed, namely, by the voluntary laying down of His life by His Son, under Divine retribution. Of this the former sacrifices appointed by God were foreshadowings.[Emphasis added]
Strong’s says (in G2435):
Christ, through His expiatory death, is the Personal means by whom God shows the mercy of His justifying grace to the sinner who believes. His ‘blood’ stands for the voluntary giving up of His life, by the shedding of His blood in expiatory sacrifice, under Divine judgment righteously due to us as sinners, faith being the sole condition on man’s part.[Emphasis added]
Strong’s also says (in G2434):
akin to hileos (‘merciful, propitious’), signifies ‘an expiation, a means whereby sin is covered and remitted.’ It is used in the NT of Christ Himself as ‘the propitiation,’ in 1Jo 2:2; 4:10, signifying that He Himself, through the expiatory sacrifice of His Death, is the Personal means by whom God shows mercy to the sinner who believes on Christ as the One thus provided.[Emphasis added]
However, it does not seem to me that 1 John 2:2 challenges the belief in the predestination of the elect. Its meaning may be that, in Christ, God has provided “the means” for any human in the world to be propitiated, that is, for the debt created by his/her sins to be satisfied in full, and therefore to become right with God. Given that the author of the Gospel of John is writing, 1 John 2:2 seems to be close in meaning to John 3:16. If this interpretation is correct, 1 John 2:2 does not help me in answering the following questions:
What is the ultimate reason for why some persons will not, in the end, actually be propitiated?
Does the Bible teach the predestination to heaven of the elect?
Does the Bible teach the predestination to hell of the non-elect (i.e., double election)?
1 John 2:2 may teach the universal saving will of God, but it does not appear to be a weapon against the belief in the concurrent or simultaneous will of God to only save the elect. Strong’s says:
What is indicated [in 1 John 2:2] is that provision is made for the whole world, so that no one is, by Divine predetermination, excluded from the scope of God’s mercy; the efficacy of the ‘propitiation,’ however, is made actual for those who believe. (Strong’s G2434)
Please share your comments on the above with me. I am aware that Romans 3:25 and Hebrews 2:17 are relevant here, but I don’t have time now to examine them in any detail.
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